This is a collection of questions I faced in the ISTQB main exam. Exam Date : 21.01.2012
Answers :-
1. D
2. C
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. B
9. D
10. D
11. A
12. A
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. A
19. A
20. C
21. B
22. B
23. D
24. A
25. D
26. C
27. A
28. D
29. D
30. C
ISTQB MAIN EXAM QUESTIONS
Q 1: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful?
A. Supporting reviews.
B. Validating models of the software.
C. Testing code executed in a special test harness.
D. Enforcement of coding standards.
Q 2: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box) Techniques?
A. Test cases can be easily automated.
B. Test cases are independent of each other.
C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system .
D. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.
Q 3 : System testing should investigate
A. Non-functional requirements only not functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
Q 4 : Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :
Read a
Read c
If a > 10 then
Print “ a is greater than 10”
End if
If c > 50 then
Print “c is greater than 50”
End if
A) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
B) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
C) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
D) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2
Q 5 : Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :-
Read x
Read y
If x >20 then
x=50
If y >=100 then
y=55
End if
End if
A) Statement coverage is 4
B) Statement coverage is 1
C) Statement coverage is 3
D) Statement Coverage is 2
Q 6 : When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that :
A. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the
released product
B. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system
fail
C. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design
D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system
Q 7 : Given the Following program
IF X < Y
THEN Statement 1;
ELSE IF Y >= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q 8 : Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective :
A) to find faults in the software
B) to prove that the software has no faults
C) to give confidence in the software
D) to find performance problems
Q 9 : If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass (61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class :
A. 23, 24, 25
B. 0, 12, 25
C. 30, 36, 39
D. 32,37,40
Q 10 : One of the following is not a part of white box testing as per BS7925-II standards :
A. Random testing
B. Data Flow testing
C. Statement testing.
D. Syntax testing.
Q 11 : What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE :
A) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
B) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
C) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
D) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
E) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
Q 12 : A title field should accept Mr, Ms and Mrs inputs.
What should be the valid and invalid equivalence classes in the above case?
A) Any of Mr, Ms, Mrs; No Input; Any other Input
B) All of Mr, Ms, Mrs; No Input; Any other Input
C) Any of Mr, Ms, Mrs; Any other Input
D) All of Mr, Ms, Mrs; Any other Input
Q 13 : The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in the correct order?
A. Implementation and execution, planning and control, analysis and design.
B. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities.
C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, implementation and execution, analysis and design.
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities, analysis and design.
Q 14 : Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques, test items, coverage, identifying and
interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements, architecture, design, interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i, ii, iv are true and iii is false
b) i, iv are true and ii is false
c) i, ii are true and iii, iv are false
d) ii, iii, iv are true and i is false
Q 15 : Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?
A) Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
B) Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable.
C) Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing.
D) Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware components.
Q 16 : In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun?
A) After the software or system has been produced.
B) During development.
C) As early as possible.
D) During requirements analysis.
Q 17 : Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t
play correctly.
A) i, iii, iv, v.
B) ii, iv and v.
C) i, ii and iv.
D) i and v.
Q 18 : For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
A) i, iv, vi.
B) ii, iii, v.
C) i, iii, iv.
D) iv, v, vi.
Q 19 : The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black or white box techniques:
i information about how the software is constructed.
ii models of the system, software or components.
iii analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv analysis of the internal structure of the components.
Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?
A) ii and iii.
B) ii and iv.
C) i and iv.
D) i and iii.
Q 20 : Which of the following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?
A) The system must be able to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours per day.
B) The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C) The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
D) The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.
Q 21 : Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?
A) Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
B) Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable.
C) Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing.
D) Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and
hardware components.
Q 22 : What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?
A) A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
B) An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test
case.
C) An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
D) An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test
case.
Q 23 : A number of critical bugs are fixed in software. All the bugs are in one module, related to reports. The test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.
A) The test manager should do only automated regression testing.
B) The test manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in other
modules
C) The test manager should only do confirmation testing. There is no need to do regression
testing
D) Regression testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one module
may affect other modules.
Q 24 : Acme Inc. decides to use functional test execution automation tool for testing GUI of their product. The GUI is expected to change frequently. Acme Inc. has put some of the manual testers through a 3 day training program on how to use the tool.
Which of the following is likely to be true?
A) Automation is likely to fail because of frequent changes and lack of experience
B) Automation is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the right way to automate
C) Automation is likely to succeed because automation is very useful for frequent changes
D) Automation is likely to succeed because the team has been trained on tool.
Q 25 : Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?
A) As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.
B) Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
C) A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cycles
D) Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme cases
injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.
Q 26 : Maintenance testing is :
A) Testing management
B) Synonym of testing the quality of service
C) Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software
D) Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor
Q 27 : What makes an inspection different from other review types?
A) It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists
B) It is led by the author of the document to be inspected
C) It can only be used for reviewing design and code
D) It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement
Q 28 : Which of the following are non-functional testing technique :
i) Acceptance testing ii) Unit Testing iii) Regression Testing iv) Performance Testing
i) Acceptance testing ii) Unit Testing iii) Regression Testing iv) Performance Testing
A) i, ii and iv
B) i, iii and iv
C) iii and iv
D) i and iv
Q 29 : Which two specification based testing techniques are most closely related to each other ?
A) Decision tables and state transition testing
B) Equivalence partitioning and state transition testing
C) Decision tables and boundary value analysis
D) Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis
Q 30 : A test plan is written specifically to describe a level of testing where the primary goal is establishing confidence in the system. Which of the following is a likely name for this document ?
A) Master test plan items
B) System test plan
C) Acceptance test plan
D) Project plan
Answers :-
1. D
2. C
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. B
8. B
9. D
10. D
11. A
12. A
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. A
19. A
20. C
21. B
22. B
23. D
24. A
25. D
26. C
27. A
28. D
29. D
30. C
